Showing posts with label Project Management. Show all posts

Assume you have collected the following data for your project. Its budget is $75,000 and it is expected to last 4 months. After two months, you have calculated the following information about the project:

Assume you have collected the following data for your project.  Its budget is $75,000 and it is expected to last 4 months.  After two months, you have calculated the following information about the project:


PV            =            $45,000
EV            =            $38,500
AC            =            $37,000

Calculate the SPI and CPI.  Based on these values, estimate the time and budget necessary to complete the project?  How would you evaluate these findings (i.e., are they good news or bad news?)


Solution:

SPI = EV/PV = $38,500/45,000 = .86

CPI = EV/AC = $38,500/37,000 = 1.04

Estimated Time to Completion = (1/.86) x 4 months = 4.68 months

Estimated Cost to Completion = (1/1.04) x $75,000 = $72,078

The findings are a bit of good news and a bit of bad.  The good news is that your estimated cost to completion is lower than the original budget; however, the bad news is that the project is behind schedule and is likely to take 4.65 months to complete, rather than the originally planned 4 months.
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You are calculating the estimated time to completion for a project of 1-year duration and a budgeted cost of $500,000. Assuming the following information, please calculate the schedule performance index and estimated time to completion.

You are calculating the estimated time to completion for a project of 1-year duration and a budgeted cost of $500,000.  Assuming the following information, please calculate the schedule performance index and estimated time to completion.


Schedule Variances
           
            Planned Value of Work Scheduled (PV)                        65

            Earned Value (EV)                                                            58

            Schedule Performance Index                                                                                   
           
            Estimated Time to Completion                                                                       



Solution:

Schedule Performance Index (SPI) = 58/65 = .89

Estimated Time to Completion = (1/.89) x 12 months = 13.45 months, or almost 2 months behind schedule.
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What are the differences between success factors and success criteria?

They are quite different, project success criteria are the criteria that, if accomplished, the project will be considered a success. The project success criteria are usually defined by the project sponsor (and other stakeholders).

Examples of project success criteria:

- Finishing the project on time
- Finishing the project on budget
- Quality of the product meeting the specifications

Project success factors are those factors that CAN lead to project success. Examples of project success factors are:

- A proactive project manager / a proactive project sponsor
- A coherent and experienced team
- Employing the right project management methodology
- Formal handling of change requests
- A flexible client
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Suppose the SPI is calculated as less than 1.0. Is this good news for the project or bad news? Why?



This would probably be viewed as bad news.  A performance index of less than 1.0 indicates that the project, based on current EV and PV information, is not progressing at the planned rate.  Depending upon how much less than 1.0 the SPI is, the project’s schedule could either be marginally or significantly delayed.
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Identify the following terms: PV, EV, and AC. Why are these terms important? How do they relate to each other?


PV refers to Planned Value.  This is the expected (planned) budget for all project activities that are planned to occur within a specific time period.  Planned Value is compared with Earned Value to determine the “real” progress that has been made on a project.

EV refers to Earned Value.  Earned value is the budgeted cost of the work performed.  This is important in establishing the true progress of the project and in understanding the meaning of variances from the project baseline.

AC stands for Actual Cost.  These are the total costs incurred to complete project work.
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What are the major advantages of using EVM as a project control mechanism? What do you perceive are its disadvantages?


The major advantages of EVM are that it is a comprehensive approach to measuring progress (links cost, time and completion), its use of objective criteria, and it enables more accurate information for decision making.  Disadvantages may include the time consuming nature of analysis in large scale projects, mathematical formulas used for efficiency do not take into account unique problems that stall the project or spike costs in one area (which may not lead to overall poor efficiency), and a lack of information regarding what type of corrective action may need to be taken.
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What are the benefits and drawbacks with the use of milestone analysis as a monitoring device?


Milestone analysis is beneficial in signaling the completion of important project stages and in creating distinctions between work packages.  This increases the team’s ability to respond to change and create logical review points.  Milestones also provide periodic goals that keep team members motivated.  They represent significant accomplishments within the larger picture of the project.  It also draws the team’s attention to the project’s status.  Overall, the analysis provides a clear picture of project development.  However, this form of analysis only allows for reaction to problems, not foresight or prevention.  Problems are then able to compound and grow to the point of unmanageable resulting in a significantly over budget/schedule project.
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What are some of the key drawbacks with S-curve analysis?


The cause of S-curve drawbacks lies mainly in its lack of tying the schedule and budget to actual project progress.  S-curves give little indication as to the cause of variations from projections.  The S-curve simply points out deviation of cost in relation to time.  It does not relation task completion to time or cost.  Therefore, when a deviation is discovered it is unknown whether the project is on target so far as physical progress (whether work is being completed on, ahead or behind the anticipated time and budget).  Without knowing the cause of the variance, managers may make incorrect assumptions about the status of the project.
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Why was one of the earliest project tracking devices referred to as an “S-curve?” Do you see value in the desire to link budget and schedule to view project performance?

This early device compared project time and cost graphically.  The nature of project time and costs creates an S when the points are plotted on a graph, hence the term “S-curve.”  There is value in linking the budget and schedule as an indicator of project performance.  Following the S-curve, managers can get a rough depiction of expected progress.  They can also see deviations of their own project from the typically expected progression.
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Why is the generic four-stage control cycle useful for understanding how to monitor and control projects?

One of the more difficult challenges of project control is finding a way to accurately measure progress.  The four-stage cycle breaks project down into specific goals that can be measured against the project baseline.  Deviations from the planned budget or time line can be identified and corrected swiftly.  The fact that it is a cycle, implying repetition of the process, demonstrates the constant need for project monitoring and control measures.  The final step in the cycle is to recycle the process resulting in continuous project control.
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What are the phases of project life cycles?

Any project has 4 phases during its life cycle. They are given below:
  1. Conceptualization/ initiation: It refers to the development of the initial goal and technical specifications for a project. The scope of the project is determined, necessary resources are identified, and important organizational stakeholders are signed on. 
  2. Planning: It is the stage in which all details specifications, schematics, schedules and other plans are developed. The individual pieces of the project, are often called as work packages, aare broken down, individual assignments and the process for coompletion of clearly dlineated. 
  3. Execution: Here the actual work of the project is performed. The system is developed or the product is created and fabricated. It is during the execution phase that the build of project team labor is performed. 
  4. Termination: It occurs when the completed project is transferred to the customer, its resources reassigned, and formally project is closed out. As specific sub activities are completed, the project shrinks in scope and cost decline rapidly.
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What are the characteristics of any projects?

According to PINTO, there are following characteristics of the projects:
  • Projects are ad hoc endeavors with a clear life cycle. 
  • Projects are building blocks in the design and execution of organizational strategies. 
  • Projects are responsible for the newest and most imporved products, services and organizational process. 
  • Projects provide a philosophy and strategy for the management of change.
  • Project management entails crossing functional and organizational boundaries. 
  • The traditional management functions of planning, organizing, motivation, directing and control apply to project management. 
  • The principal outcomes of a project are the satisfaction of customer requirements within the constraints of technical, cost and schedule objectives.
  • Projects are terminated upon successful completion of performance objectives. 
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What is a project? What are the approaches to its definition?

A project is a unique venture with a beginning and end, conducted by people to meet established goals within parameters of cost, schedule and  quality.

Some of various elements of any projects are:
  1. Projects are complex, one-time processes. 
  2. Projects are limited by budget, schedule, and resources. 
  3. Projects are developed to resolve a clear goal or set of goals.
  4. Projects are customer-focused.
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Under what circumstances might you wish to crash a project?


Crashing may be desirable if initial time estimates are inaccurate, the project falls behind schedule or the project completion date is moved up.  In these cases, the project cannot be completed on time given the original schedule.  Crashing would expedite the project/activities to meet new completion dates.  Another scenario occurs when late fees or penalties may be incurred.  It may be more cost effect to crash activities than to pay the additional fees.
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What are the benefits of Gantt Chart?


1) They are very easy to read and comprehend
2) They identify the project network coupled with its schedule baseline
3) They allow for updating and project control
4) They are useful for identifying resource needs and assigning resources to tasks
5) They are easy to create
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Define the term stakeholder and discuss the major groups of stakeholders.


Answer:  Stakeholders are defined as all individuals or groups who have an active stake in the project and can potentially impact, either positively or negatively, its development. Internal and external are the broad categories of stakeholder groups. 
  • Internal stakeholders include top management, project team members, and other functional managers, among others. 
  • External stakeholder groups include clients, competitors, suppliers, and intervention groups.
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What are some of the key drawbacks with S-curve analysis?


The cause of S-curve drawbacks lies mainly in its lack of tying the schedule and budget to actual project progress.  
  •  S-curves give little indication as to the cause of variations from projections.   
  • The S-curve simply points out deviation of cost in relation to time.  It does not relation task completion to time or cost.  Therefore, when a deviation is discovered it is unknown whether the project is on target so far as physical progress (whether work is being completed on, ahead or behind the anticipated time and budget).   
  • Without knowing the cause of the variance, managers may make incorrect assumptions about the status of the project.
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What do you mean by Project? What are its characteristics?

A project is a temporary group effort undertaken to create a unique product, result or service.

  • it is group effort as many people are involved
  • temporary because, it has defined beginning and end
A project is always uniqe in that it is not an ongoing operation, but a specific set of operations designed to accomplish a singular specific purpose or to  meet a stated goal.

Characterisics of Project

  1. Time Pressure and constraint
  2. Uncertainty
  3. Ambiguity
  4. Complexity

Characteristics of projects

  • Projects have a purpose: Projects have clearly-defined aims and set out to produce clearly-defined results. Their purpose is to solve a "problem”, and this involves analysing needs beforehand. Suggesting one or more solutions, a project aims at lasting social change.
  • Projects are realistic: Their aims must be achievable, and this means taking account both of requirements and of the financial and human resources available.
  • Projects are limited in time and space: They have a beginning and an end and are implemented in (a) specific place(s) and context.
  • Projects are complex: Projects call on various planning and implementation skills and involve various partners and players.
  • Projects are collective: Projects are the product of collective endeavours. They involve teamwork and various partners and cater for the needs of others.
  • Projects are unique: Projects stem from new ideas. They provide a specific response to a need (problem) in a specific context. They are innovative.
  • Projects are an adventure: Every project is different and ground-breaking; they always involve some uncertainty and risk.
  • Projects can be assessed: Projects are planned and broken down into measurable aims, which must be open to evaluation.
  • Projects are made up of stages: Projects have distinct, identifiable stages (see Project cycle).
Source:
T-Kit Project Management published by the Council of Europe in cooperation with the European Union

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What do you mean by Test Case? What are the structure of test plan? Explain with an example.

Definition

Test case has components that describes and input, action on event and a expected response to determine if a feature of an application is working correctly.

Levels of Test Case

There are four levels of test cases:
  1. Level 1: Basic test cases are from application specific
  2. Level 2: Practical stage in which writing test cases depends on actual functional and system flow of the application.
  3. Level 3: Group some test cases and write a test procedure where 0<n<=10
  4. Level 4: Automation of the project

Example

  • Test Case Id
  • Unit to test
  • Assumptions
  •  Test data
  • Steps to be executed
  • Expected result
  • Pass/fail
  • Comments

Structure of test Plan

  1. Test plan identifier
  2. Introduction 
  3. Test item
  4. Features to be tested
  5. Features not be tested
  6. Approach
  7. Items pass/fail criteria
  8. Suspension criteria and resumption criteria
  9. Test deliverables
  10. Testing tasks
  11. Environment needs
  12. Responsibilities
  13. Schedule
  14. Risk and contingencies
  15. Approvals


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oDesk Software Testing Test Answers


oDesk Software Testing Test Answers

 Which of the following are the objectives of using a "test harness"?
a. Automating the testing process
b. Executing test suites of test cases
c. Generating test reports
d. Creating reusable test logic to reduce maintenance and improve test coverage
Consider the following code fragment:

        If(a>b) && (b<c)
        {
                b= (a+c)/2;
        }

In the options given below, each of the three numbers in parentheses represents the inputs for a test case, where the first, second and third number represents a, b, c respectively of the code fragment. Keeping this in mind, find out which of the following options gives a set of test case inputs that achieves decision coverage for this fragment of code in the minimum number of test cases?
a. (5, 3, 2)
b. (5, 3, 2); (5, 4, 0)
c. (5, 4, 0); (4, 5, 0)
d. (4, 5, 0); (5, 4, 5)
_________ testing is used to evaluate and understand the application's reliability, scalability and interoperability when more users are added or the volume of data is increased
a. Integration
b. Performance
c. Regression
d. Stability
Which of the following strategies are used for Integration testing?
a. Big Bang
b. Top-down
c. Bottom-up
d. Any of the above strategies can be used
The determination of adherence or non adherence to a compliance is carried out during:
a. Inspection
b. Audit
c. White-box testing
d. Walkthrough
Which of the following is true regarding Static Analysis tools?
a. They help you find defects rather than failures
b. They are used by developers only
c. They require compilation of code
d. All of the above
Identify the defect which can be detected by Equivalence Partitioning Technique:
a. Improper handling of sequences of events
b. Mis-handling of combinations of conditions
c. Irregular handling of large and small values
d. Improper handling of input classes
e. Invalid output generation
Which of the following is false about software testing?
a. Top-down integration testing has as its major advantage that low level modules never need testing
b. Alpha testing is in-house testing performed by the test team
c. Equivalence partitioning is used to minimize the number of permutations and combinations of input data
d. Fuzz testing provides random data to the input of a program
The review of a technical document such as requirements specs or a test plan, with the purpose of looking for problems and seeing what is missing, without fixing anything is called:
a. Inspection
b. Black box testing
c. White box testing
d. Walkthrough
What is the main reason for testing a software immediately before releasing it?
a. To ensure that the system will work after release
b. To decide when the software is of sufficient quality to release
c. To find as many bugs as possible before release
d. To give information for a risk based decision about release
Which of the following types of testing emulates the real world use of a system and verifies that the product fulfills the intended requirements?
a. System testing
b. Model testing
c. Integration testing
d. User acceptance testing
Which of the following tools supports traceability, recording of incidents, and scheduling of tests?
a. Static analysis tool
b. Debugging tool
c. Test management tool
d. Configuration management tool
Selecting the test inputs that are likely to reveal a failure associated with a particular defect is an example of the use of:
a. Activity analysis
b. Defect taxonomy for test design
c. Root cause analysis
d. Cleanroom software development
Which of the following Security testing concepts deals with the process of determining whether a requester is allowed to receive a service or perform an operation?
a. Confidentiality
b. Integrity
c. Authentication
d. Authorization
The process of using a test case to test a specific unit of code, function, or capability is called:
a. Test Run
b. Test Script
c. Test Plan
d. Test Scenario
Which of the following are benefits of automated testing?
a. reusability
b. efficiency
c. speed
d. allows testing of video and mp3 files
Usability testing indicates that the design and system should be modified if:
a. people have difficulty in understanding the instructions
b. people have difficulty in manipulating the parts
c. people have difficulty in interpreting the feedback
d. all of the above
Which of the following is not included in Non-functional testing?
a. Load/Stress testing
b. Unit testing
c. Security testing
d. Stress testing
Which of the following statements is not true regarding capture/replay tools?
a. They are used to support multi-user testing
b. They capture aspects of user behavior
c. They are the most frequently used types of CAST tools
d. They are used to capture and playback user requirements
Which of the following is not a type of Incremental testing approach?
a. Top-down
b. Big-bang
c. Bottom-up
d. None of the above
In which type of testing is random data generated for input into the software?
a. Smoke testing
b. Marge testing
c. Fuzz testing
d. Operation testing
Which of the following is written by a programmer and is meant to call the function to be tested by passing test data to it?
a. Stub
b. Driver
c. Proxy
Which of the following types of testing is likely to benefit the most from the use of test tools that provide the test capture and replay facilities?
a. Integration testing
b. Regression testing
c. System testing
d. User acceptance testing
Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to Test Automation?
a. Test Automation is the process of writing a computer program to do testing that would otherwise need to be done manually
b. Test Automation is the use of software to control the execution of tests and the comparison of actual outcomes to predicted outcomes
c. Test Automation tools may provide record and playback features that allow users to interactively record user actions and replay it back any number of times
d. Test Automation is the set of procedures used by organizations to ensure that a software product will meet its quality goals at the best value to the customer
Which of the following models of software development incorporates testing into the whole software development life cycle?
a. Agile model
b. Waterfall model
c. V-Model
d. Spiral model
When a defect is detected and fixed, the software should be retested to confirm that the original defect has been successfully removed. This is called:
a. Regression testing
b. Maintenance testing
c. Confirmation testing
d. None of the above
What is the normal order of activities in which software testing is carried out?
a. Unit, Integration, System, Validation
b. System, Integration, Unit, Validation
c. Unit, Integration, Validation, System
d. None of the above
Which of the following testing occurs outside the development environment?
a. Installation testing
b. White-box testing
c. Module testing
d. Fuzz testing
In Bottom-up integration testing,
a. Major decision points are tested in the early phase
b. No drivers need to be written
c. No stubs need to be written
d. Regression testing is not required
Which of the following is incorrect for Black-box testing?
a. It takes an external perspective of the test object to derive test cases
b. It is sometimes also called as Opaque Testing, Functional Testing and Closed Box Testing
c. It uses an internal perspective of the system to design test cases based on internal structure
Which of the following options correctly defines the term "test harness"?
a. It is a high level document describing the principles, approach and major objectives of the organization regarding testing
b. It is a set of test activities collected into a manageable phase of a project
c. It is a collection of software and test data configured to test a program unit by running it under varying conditions and monitoring its behavior and outputs
d. It is a set of several test cases for a component or a system under test
What is the difference between Regression testing and Retesting?
a. Retesting is done by programmers while Regression testing is done by testers
b. Retesting checks for unexpected side-effects while Regression testing ensures that the original fault has been corrected
c. Retesting ensures that the original fault has been corrected while Regression testing checks for other unexpected side-effects
d. There is no difference between Regression testing and Retesting
Which of the following types of errors are uncovered in White-box testing?
a. Performance errors
b. Logical errors
c. Typographical errors
d. Behavioral errors
The cursory examination of all the basic components of a software system to ensure that they work is called:
a. Fuzz testing
b. Black-box testing
c. Sanity testing
d. Smoke testing
Which of the following statements holds true for Verification and Validation?
a. Verification is used to check if we are doing the right thing and Validation is used to check whether we have developed the software as per the client's requirements or not
b. Validation is used to check if we are doing the right thing and Verification is used to check whether we have developed the software as per the client's requirements or not
c. Validation tells us what to test and Verification decides on the methodology to go about testing the application
d. None of the above
Which of the following is true about Sanity Testing?
a. A Sanity test is used to determine if a small section of the application is still working after a minor change
b. A Sanity test is run to check if the build of an application is stable and it can be considered for further testing
c. A Sanity test is the process of testing to make sure that the older programming still works with the new changes
d. All of the above are true
Which of the following test activities provides the maximum potential cost savings from the use of Computer-Aided Software Testing (CAST)?
a. Test execution
b. Test planning
c. Test management
d. Test design
What is the name of the testing method in which (for each pair of input parameters) all the possible discrete combinations of parameters are passed on?
a. Single testing
b. Pairwise testing
c. Unit testing
d. None of the above
Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to Smoke testing and Sanity testing?
a. A Smoke test is designed to touch every part of the application in a cursory way whereas a Sanity test is used to determine if a small section of the application is still working after a minor change
b. A Smoke test adopts a shallow and wide approach whereas a Sanity test is a narrow regression test that focuses on one, or a few areas of functionality. Sanity testing is usually narrow and deep
c. A Smoke test is usually unscripted whereas a Sanity test is scripted either using a written set of tests or an automated test
d. A Smoke test is a normal health checkup to a build of an application before taking it to in-depth testing whereas a Sanity test is to verify whether all requirements are met or not, checking all features breadth-first
From the options given below which of the dynamic program analysis technique is aimed at improving application performance?
a. Code complexity analysis
b. Profiling
c. Network packet sniffing
d. Spelling and grammar checking
e. Program slicing
What would be the appropriate result of a Stress test at its peak?
a. A gradual performance slow-down leading to a non-catastrophic system halt
b. A gradual performance improvement leading to a catastrophic system halt
c. A gradual performance slow-down leading to a catastrophic system halt
d. A gradual performance improvement to a non-catastrophic system halt
Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to Code coverage?
a. It describes the degree to which the source code of a program has been tested
b. It is a form of White-box testing
c. It is a form of Black-box testing
Which of the following resources are tested by most of the Stress testing tools?
a. Disk space
b. Network bandwidth
c. Internal memory
d. All of the above
Which of the following is not a part of System testing?
a. Recovery testing and failover testing
b. Performance, Load and Stress testing
c. Usability testing
d. Top-down integration testing
Which of the following statements about Equivalence partitioning is correct?
a. A software testing design technique in which tests are designed to include representatives of boundary values
b. A type of software testing used for testing two or more modules or functions together with the intent of finding interface defects between the modules or functions
c. It is the degree to which the source code of a program has been tested
d. A software testing technique that divides the input data of a software unit into partitions of data from which test cases can be derived
Which of the following is not a Static testing methodology?
a. Code review
b. Inspection
c. Walkthroughs
d. System tests
What do you understand by the term "Monkey test"?
a. It is random testing performed by automated testing tools
b. It is used to simulate the actions a user might perform
c. It is another name for Monitor testing
From the following options, choose the best example which represents a reliability failure for an application:
a. Slow response time
b. Excessive application consumption
c. Random application termination
d. Failure to encrypt data
Choose the correct description of a Stub in software testing:
a. A Stub is basically the same as a driver except that it is very fast in returning results
b. A Stub is a dummy procedure, module or unit that stands in for an unfinished portion of a system
c. A Stub is just a different name for an Emulator
d. None of the above
Beta testing is performed by:
a. An independent test team
b. The software development team
c. In-house users
d. External users
The main focus of Black-box testing is:
a. to check for logical errors
b. to ensure that each code statement is executed once
c. to test the functionality of the system as a whole
d. to identify all paths through the software
What is Boundary value testing?
a. It tests values at and near the minimum and maximum allowed values for a particular input or output
b. It tests different combinations of input circumstances
c. It is a testing technique associated with White-box testing
d. Both a and b
Identification of set-use pairs is accomplished during which of the following static analysis activities?
a. Control flow analysis
b. Data flow analysis
c. Coding standards analysis
d. Function Point Analysis
Performance testing is used for real-time systems only.
a. True
b. False
Which one of the following is a major benefit of verification early in the software development life cycle?
a. It allows the identification of changes in user requirements
b. It facilitates timely set up of the test environment
c. It reduces defect multiplication
d. It allows testers to become involved early in the project
The testing performed by external organizations or standards bodies to give greater guarantees of compliance is called:
a. Usability testing
b. Conformance testing
c. Integration testing
d. System testing
In which of the following testing methodologies does the test case generation use the system model?
a. Repetitive testing
b. Model testing
c. Modular testing
d. System testing
The testing phase in which individual software modules are combined and tested as a group is called:
a. Unit testing
b. Integration testing
c. Module testing
d. White-box testing
In which of the following testing methodologies does the automatic generation of efficient test procedures/vectors use models of system requirements and specified functionality?
a. Repetitive testing
b. Model testing
c. Modular testing
d. System testing

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